Latest JAMB 2024 Questions Released (Up-to-Date).

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JAMB 2024 Questions

Stay informed with the most recent developments in your JAMB preparations by accessing the latest JAMB 2024 Questions.

Below are all of the questions that has been set so far for JAMB 2024 and practicing them can give you an hedge over other students who are planning to take the same examination with you. However, as we usually perform in previous years, we believe that action speaks louder than words. For the past years, we have been helping many students achieve their desired scores in UTME screening exercise and 2022 will not be an exception.

About Jamb CBT Exams

On the 9th day of March 2015, the Joint Admission Matriculation Board (JAMB) imprinted a landmark in its 37-year history by beginning the first total Computer-Based Test (CBT).

Though CBT was introduced in 2013, it was not made compulsory. In the past, candidates wrote the Unified Tertiary Matriculation Examination (UTME) using the Paper-Pencil Test (PPT).

But in 2015, all the 1.47 million candidates, including inmates and the visually impaired, would take the exams via CBT.

Before the Advent Of CBT

In the year 1976, there were 13 universities in the country, and these institutions of learning conducted varying entrance examinations with no particular structure in place.

This meant that a candidate could sit for the examination of all the universities if the time and resources permitted.

Moved by the uncoordinated system, the committee of vice-chancellors clamored for a unified body to supervise pre-varsity examination and this led to the birth of JAMB in 1977.

Pencil and Paper Malpractice History

After the establishment of JAMB, the body successfully coordinated University Matriculation Examination (UME), Polytechnic/Colleges of Education Matriculation Examination (PCE) for more than 30 years.

However, the examinations were merged in 2010 and the board began administering the Unified Tertiary Matriculation Emergency (UTME).

One of JAMB’s most unending challenges has been examination malpractice, and it has led to frequent cancellation of results.

As the number of candidates continued to spiral, the applicants began to outweigh resources, resulting in the evolution of “special centres”.

This era witnessed a trend highlighted by pupils traveling to remote areas to write exams under little or no supervision. Some got answers before examination and many also came to the examination centers with malpractice materials.

Others paid their way through. Some candidates who scored as high as 300 of 400 in the examination found it difficult to survive in top class universities, thus eroding public confidence in the board.

At the peak of the distrust in 2005, the minister of education at the time, introduced the post-UME examination for a second testing of pupils who had passed the UME or PCE.

In a way, this defeated the essence of establishing the body in the first place, as universities literally returned to testing their own candidates.

Current Challenges with JAMB CBT Exams

JAMB CBT exams may in some way reduce the level of malpractice which is bad for some candidates. It has, however, open doors to other challenges.

Applicants have kicked against the this exam method on the streets of Port Harcourt, Ibadan, Jos. In some instances Shots had to be fired and some of the candidates were arrested in Benue state.

Applicants are hinging the reasons for the protest on the inability to access e-slips, without which a candidate cannot register for the exam. This is one big challenge JAMB has to surmount.

Power supply and internet availability are also areas that, if poorly managed, could disrupt the entire process.

But the board has assured the candidates that all the examination centers have been equipped with appropriate power back-ups and necessary bandwidth for quick communication.

Another challenge is the potential hacking of the board’s database to access the questions before the examination.

But the board is giving us the assurance that it has done its homework very well and its database is impenetrable to hackers.

Tips to Passing JAMB CBT Exam 2024

Let’s be clear on one thing before I dish out these tips. There are no specific tips, tweaks, tricks to passing the JAMB CBT exams that work for everyone. You will have to stick to what works for you. Just so we are clear, the following tips are just to assist you.

1. Pay Attention to Your Application Process

The fact is admission start from application. So it is pertinent to take the application process seriously to avoid statements like “if I had known when I was applying!!!” or “I never knew this before my application”.

The ideal time to start the battle of admission is during JAMB application. Many would-be-students do not arm themselves with enough information that will guarantee their admission success.

Many apply without formal orientation. Using the trial-and-error method, they fumble their way through Universities and course selection. The result in most cases is a failure.

It is especially important that prospective candidates for JAMB UTME give special attention to their application as JAMB will be providing two or more modes of taking their examination.

Your knowledge about this and many more questions may be the only thing needed to pass JAMB UTME. Before you go online and register on http://www.jamb.org.ng you need to fortify yourself with the knowledge of what you would meet there.

2. Get Acquainted with a Computer

The CBT is written with a Computer system with access to the internet. And information is that in some centers you have to setup your own computer before you start. You can imagine how frustrated you will be if you have no knowledge about computers.

So get acquainted with computers, Educate yourself on how to maneuver a computer, connect it to the internet and how to work with it.

3. Practice at CBT Interface with Your Computer

Aside from getting used to a computer, the JAMB CBT environment is another area you should endeavor to get used to. Since it is a computer-based test, you must endeavor to practice with the same program you will be tested with.

Install JAMB practice software that will help you familiarize yourself with the interface of the 2020 Joint Admission and Matriculation Board (JAMB) CBT Exams

4. Time Yourself while You Practice

Timing in the JAMB CBT examination is key. You must understand it is a timed examination so you must ensure that you time yourself while you practice. Do well to use the same time you would be given on the test day or even less.

5. Always Take Notes

You must not think that jotting is a waste of time. You can remember only 10% of what you read the first time. So a jotter always comes in handy. You can make your jotting comprehensive, make full sentences that you can understand when you read it over again.

Make sure you jot out your whole note or textbooks early enough. When done with this, read your hotter over and over again, four or five times for a start.

6. Attend Intensive JAMB Tutorials

Intensive tutorials would help coach you and put you on the right track. For each of your subjects, set aside a separate jotter for each course taught during the tutorial.

Read this jotter every day. Participate actively during tutorials. These would prove helpful.

7. Always Keep Past Questions Close

Study your past questions over and over again. Make sure you get used to all the questions. Jamb has always been in the tradition of setting related questions.

Your task is mainly to ensure that you understand their tricks. And to help you we have provided JAMB Past Questions and Answers above for you to use.

Number Of Questions To Be Set In Jamb 2024 For All Subjects

As the 2022 jamb draws closer every day and as jamb candidates starts preparing for the exam we have seen thousands of candidates asking this simple but interesting question “how many number of questions will jamb set”.

But before we answer the above question, we will like to inform you that jamb has officially reduced the total number of questions in all questions across board and at the same time reduce the hours given to candidates.

The reduction of time and number of questions was first noticed in 2018 jamb, although we didn’t pay much attention to 2017 jamb to see if the same reduction applied to it, but we are very certain that 2016 jamb was not affected

Following the reduction in the total number of questions which I took time to explain below jamb has reduced all questions from the usual 50 to just 40 while ENGLISH LANGUAGE now has just 60 questions.

Questions like mathematics, Economics, CRS, Geography, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Literature, government, Arabic, religion, literature in English, etc with the exception of use of english language will have just 40 questions attached to them.

The Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board has reduced the total hours required to answer all questions from 3 hours to just 2 hours. this means you are expected to answer all questions within just 2 hours.

How will Jamb 2024 questions be set then?

Jamb questions won’t be different from what was given last year (not same question), I mean the pattern will be similar and the time frame given will still be similar, we aren’t expecting anything new

If you have any question as regards the 2024 jamb just let us know by commenting below via the comment section and be rest assured we will all learn from each other

How Would JAMB 2024 Be Marked And Graded? JAMB new grading system/ marking scheme 2024

If you have been asking how would jamb will be marked and graded then this article is for you. I will advise you to read this post from A-Z so as to understand how jamb is being marked and how they calculate their score.

Of recent we have seen an unusual reduction in the total number of questions jamb sets in the exams which makes one to wonder if the mark attached to each question are still the same as before.

Well despite the reduction in the total number of questions the total mark still remains the same 400, this is because they will still mark the total score over %100.

So by extension the highest mark a candidate that score is 400 while the average score is 200 this is where most competitive universities are going to peg their departmental cut of mark.

How Does Jamb Calculate Their Marks

If you where given like 40 questions to answer in a subject and unexpectedly you got every question right, that means you have scored 100 marks in that subject.

All score you got must be multiply by 100 and still be divided by the total number of questions , hope you understand?

Total score Obtainable for the subject =40

Your score in the subject =40

Total percentage =100%

Now if you score let’s say 25, it means your 25 *100/40= 62. 5

now if you scored let’s say 10,it means your 10 *100/40=25

This new system is a good news to some and also a bad news to some. if you happen to score very low score anything between 1 to 18 will drastically reduce your chances of crossing 200 in jamb total score..

Does it apply to English language? this grading system does not affect jamb use of english language as each question/section carries different score. please take note that jamb use of english total questions is usually 100 which exceed other subjects by almost *2

One passages is five questions
Two passages equals 10 questions.
One question carries 3 marks.
10 times 3 equals 30.

Jamb new grading system 2022

the new jamb grading system was adopted to consider those candidates who performed well in their O level results. this means that institution will now take O level grade into consideration when giving admission.

Special marks of 10 are awarded to candidate who got their grades through one sitting while those with two sittings will only get 2 marks.

In the new grading system, A1 gives you 6 points while B2 gives 4 points leaving those who are struggling with Cs with just 3 points

JAMB SCORE GRADE POINTS

GRADE	TO	POINTS
180	185	20
186	190	21
191	195	22
196	200	23
201	205	24
206	210	25
211	215	26
216	222	27
221	225	28
226	230	29
231	235	30
236	240	31
244	248	32
252	256	33
260	300	34-43
300	400	44-60

This new system will also affect those with low WAEC and NECO Grade as this could water down your high jamb score.

Jamb Negative Marking (Do Jamb participates in Negative Marking)

there have been wide speculations about this issue which goes along to say, if a candidate did a guessing work and got a question wrong, a mark will be deducted from you. the aim of negative marking was to discourage guessing work in the hall.
I don’t think jamb substrate makes because you got an answer wrong.

Well it’s of my personal opinion that no such thing is in existence as it makes no sense at all.

JAMB UTME Subjects Combination

I have written down a comprehensive list of all jamb subjects combination for all courses but have it in mind that you must include the use of english language which is a must and also register any other 3 subjects that are relevant to your field of study.

JAMB Economics Questions

Frequently Repeated Questions for Jamb | Jamb Economics Questions

Like we have promised to provide you with random repeated questions we feel that might be out it’s your duty to make sure that you study this question very well because they might be twisted somehow just to confuse you.

In the just concluded 2023 Jamb we where able to prove not only that those who took our advice smile out of the exam hall.

Facts about 2024 jamb economics questions and answers

We want you to know that the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board JAMB won’t have enough time to set new questions for millions of candidates that will be sitting for the much anticipated 2024 jamb examination.

They are running out of time and their main focus will be to make sure that jamb accredited centres are up to standard.

Likely jamb Questions and Answers for economics 2024

I can beat my chest that about 50% of the below questions i will be dropping will come out though some might be twisted to make it look different,that’s why you must be well prepared and equipped with jamb syllabus for economics garnish with relevant text books that are comprehensive enough for you.

OBJECTIVE

1. The price of a good rises from N5 to N8 and the quantity demanded falls from 200 to 190 units. Over this price range, the demand curve is
A. fairly inelastic
B. fairly elastic
C. perfectly inelastic
D. perfectly elastic

2. In economis analysis, a statement is said to be normalize if, it
A. can be tested scientifically
B. relates to value judgment
C. is contradictory
D. is incorrect

3. Utility is the satisfaction derived from
A. production
B. distribution
C. consumption
D. demand

4. If there is an increase in demand without a corresponding increase in supply, there will be
A. fall in price
B. rise in price
C. shift in supply curve to the right
D. shift in demand curve to the left

How do you see the questions and answers? Hope it’s quite interesting and a bit confusing? Well don’t fail to back this up with other past questions mostly from 1984 to 2014.

Use the production possibility curve of a country represented in the diagram below to answer questions 5 and 6

5. An improvement in technology will enable the country to produce at
A. V B. W C. X D. Z

6. If the country is currently producing at point Y, it can increase production of producer goods by moving to the point
A. v
B. W
C. X
D. Z

7. In the table above, the price of commodity y is N2 and that of x is N1 while the individual has an income of N12. Determine the combination of the two commodities the individual should consume to maximize his utility
A 3y and 3x
B. 6y and 4x
C. 3y and 6x
D. 5y and 5x

8. When two variables are positively related, the graph of the relationship
A. is a straight line
B. is a downward-sloping curve
C. is an upward sloping curve
D. has a negative intercept

9. For an inferior good, a decrease in real income lead to
A. an outward shift of the demand curve
B. an inward shift of the demand curve
C a lowed equilibrium price
D. a change in quantity demanded

10. In a planned economy the emphasis is on
A. individual choice and decisions
B. public ownership and control
C. private ownership and control
D. prices and competition

11. Price elasticity of supply is a ratio of the change in
A. quantity supplied to the c change in demand
B. original quantity to a change in new quantity
C. quantity supplied to the change in price
D. price to the change in quantity supplied.

12. the long-run average cost curve is called a planning curve because it shows what happens to costs when.
A. variable inputs are increased
B. fixed factors are increased
C. different sizes of plants are built
D. a bigger size of plants is built

13. Imperfect market is characterized by
A. many buyers and few sellers
B. a large number of buyers and sellers
C. non-preferential treatment
D. perfect mobility of factors of production

14. Short-run period in production is a period for a firm to be able to change its
A. variable inputs
B. total outputs
C. total revenue
D. scale of operation

Use the table below to answer questions 15 and 16

Output Produced per day (unit)	Fixed Cost per day (N)	Total Cost per day (N)
20	60	100
30	60	120
40	60	130
50	60	135
60	60	150
70	60	170
80	60	190

15. The ATC at 30 units of output is
A. 120.000
B.N60.00
C.N40.00
D.N3.00

16. At 60 units of output, the AVC is
A. N150.00
B. N90.00
C.N2.50
D.N1.50

17. If the demand curve facing a frim is sharply downward sloping, the firm is likely to be
A. a perfect competitor
B. a monopolistic competitor as it can have a limited influence as it can have a limited influence on price
C. an oligopolist as it can collude with other firms to have some influence on price

Jamb 2022 CRS Questions

Abraham is portrayed in the bible as

A. The miracle worker
B. The lion of Judah
C. The giver of the laws
D. The father of the faithful
E. The almighty prophet of Jehova

Moses led the children of Israel through the

A. Sahara desert
B. Lion’s Den
C. Dead sea
D. valley of the shadow of death
E. Red sea

Which of the following people was one of the outstanding kings of Israel after the falling of the Kingdom?

A. King herold
B. Pharoah
C. Sennacherib
D. Jeroboam
E. Tiglath-Pileser

Who among the following was sold to the Ishaemlites for twenty shekels because of his dreams?

A. Moses
B. Joseph
C. Jacob
D. Ishmael
E. Minahem of Israel

The ten commandments were delivered to the Israelites through Moses while they were

A. In Egypt
B. In the Land of Midian
C. At Mount Sinai
D. In the promised land
E. Near Jericho

The children of Israel asked Samuel for a king because

A. It was in their constitution
B. Their former kind was killed in battle
C. They desired to be like the heathen nations around them
D. They were tired of military regime
E. Samuel wanted to contest the election

Who sold his birthright for a plate of pottage?

A. Daniel
B. Esau
C. Jacob
D. Nathaniel
E. Adam

He was a king remembered for his erecting a mighty temple for the worship of God:

A. Solomon
B. Josiah
C. Saul
D. David
E. Absalom

The law books used for the great reformation of Israel’s social and religious institution were found in the temple in 621 BC during the reign of

A. Hezekiah
B. Josiah
C. Moses
D. Ahab
E. Hammurabi

Jesus Christ was baptized in the River Jordan by

A. Mathew
B. John
C. Jeremiah
D. Mary Magdalene
E. Angel Gabriel

….was not one of the Apostles of Jesus

A. Bartholomew
B. Agrippa
C. James the son of Alphaeus
D. Simon
E. Andrew

….was one of the strongest enemies of the Christian faith before his conversion

A. Jehu
B. Judas Iscariot
C. Paul
D. Gideon
E. Satan

Who accompanied Paul on his First Missionary journey?

A. Barnabas
B. Lucius of Cyrene
C. Manaen
D. Peter
E. Simeon

The Holy spirit descended on the followers of Christ and they began to speak in tongues

A. During the ascension of Christ
B. At the crucifixion of Christ
C. As the people sat on Mount Gilboa
D. While crossing the red sea
E. On the day of pentecost

Joseph’s brothers hated him more because

A. Of the coat Jacob gave him
B. He was the son of Rachael
C. His father loved him
D. Of his dreams
E. He brought an evil report of them to his father

David took Jerusalem from

A. The Jebusites
B. The Philistines
C. The Ammonites
D. Edomites
E. The Canaanites

The Lord told Solomon his kingdom would be divided after his death because.

A. He had married foriegn woman
B. Be built the temple
C. He followed other gods
D. He oppressed Israel
E. He was too rich

Jeremiah’s vision of boiling pot represented

A. Israel’s sin
B. The true worship of God
C. Invasion from the north
D. Repentance
E. Judgement

Jeremiah the prophet

A. encouraged Zedekiah to rebel against Babylon
B. Promised deliverance from the king of Babylon
C. told Zedekiah to submit to the king of Babylon
D. advised zedkiah to make alliance with other kings
E. told Zedekiah to flee

In his parables of the “Wheat and the tares” Jesus

A. Told people to root out the tares
B. Told people the tares should be left until harvest
C. Spoke of different kinds of soil
D. Contrasted the size of wheat and tares
E. Said the tares will wither before harvest

Jamb 2024 English Language

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

In the match against the uplanders team, the sub mariners turned out to be the dark horse

A. played most brilliantly
B. played below their usual form
C. won unexpectedly
D. lost as expected
E. won as expected

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

Only the small fry get punished for such social misdemeanors

A. small boys
B. unimportant people
C. frightened people
D. frivolous people
E. inexperienced people

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

He spoke with his heart in his mouth

A. courageously
B. with such unusual cowardice
C. with a lot of confusion in his speech
D. without being able to make up his mind
E. with fright and agitation

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

The leader in today’s issue of our popular newspaper focuses on inflation

A. president
B. headline
C. editorial
D. columnist
E. proprietor

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

From the ways my friend talks, you can see he is such a bore

A. rude
B. brilliant
C. uninteresting
D. overbearing
E. humorous

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
His jail terms were to run concurrently

A. simultaneously
B. uniformly
C. laboriously
D. consecutively
E. judiciously

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

There is some obvious symmetry in the whole presentation

A. confusion
B. hesitation
C. excitement
D. orderliness
E. dissatisfaction

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
The bill has to wait as we are now insolvent

A. overworked
B. bankrupt
C. unsettled
D. insoluble
E. affluent

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

All his plans fell through

A. failed
B. were accomplished
C. had to be reviewed
D. were rejected
E. fell

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
The balance sheet at the end of the business year shows that we broke even

A. lost heavily
B. made profit
C. neither lost nor gained
D. had no money to continue business
E. were heavily indebted to our bankers

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

He was appointed specifically to put the recruits through

A. assign them to work
B. train them
C. discipline them
D. assist them at work
E. supervise them at work

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

The result of his experiment represents a break through in medical science

A. an outstanding success
B. catastrophe
C. an end to such experiments
D. breaking point
E. a colossal failure

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

Being an optimist, our professor always sees the bright side of most things

A. charming
B. illumined
C. brilliant
D. pleasing
E. cheerful

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
The state government appointed a commission of inquiry to go into the community’s complaints carefully and without prejudice

A. investigate
B. search
C. look for
D. account for
E. ascertain

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

The traffic situation in Lagos can lead to disastrous consequences; a man lost a very lucrative job because he was held up by it

A. confused
B. delayed
C. annoyed
D. intrigued
E. obstructed

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

Mrs. Dada has been deserted by her husband because he feels she has a heart of stone

A. she has a heavy heart
B. she has little warmth of feeling
C. she has a hard heart
D. she is hard hearted
E. she has a strong heart

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
Mr. Jack could be a successful businessman if he paid more attention to the more intricate aspects of his account

A. Mr Jack will undoubtedly succeed
B. Mr Jack cannot succeed
C. Jack will have a very good chance of succeeding
D. Mr. Jack will find it difficult to succeed
E. Mr Jack will succeed in spite of all odds

If my father had not arrived, I would have starved. This sentence means

A. My father did arrive and I didn’t starve
B. I had to starve because my father didn’t come
C. my father didn’t arrive and I didn’t starve
D. I should have starved but I didn’t
E. I had starved before my father arrived

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

The two sprinters were running neck and neck

A. exact level
B. very slowly
C. very fast
D. with their necks together
E. together

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;

He stared at her

A. glanced
B. peeped
C. looked
D. gazed
E. fixed

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence;
When the man was caught by police he presented a bold front

A. he attacked the policemen boldly
B. he walked up to the policemen
C. he faced the situation with apparent boldness
D. he bravely attempted to give them a present
E. he frowned at them in a defiant manner

Choose the option that best convey the meaning of the underlined portion in each of the following sentence;
I have been able to observe him at close quarters

A. in government house nearby
B. within a short space of time
C. in a small family house
D. at close range
E. at regular intervals

Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in each of the following sentence;
At the site of the ghastly accident the poor woman’s hair stood on end

A. the woman’s hair became straight
B. the wind blew her hair upwards
C. the woman was unmoved
D. the woman disarranged her hair
E. the woman was frightened

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;

When the beggar was tired he ….. down by the roadside

A. lied
B. laid
C. layed
D. lay
E. lain

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;
He did not like …. leaving the class early

A. we
B. us
C. our
D. ourselves
E. our selves

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;

Before the operation, the dentist found that his patient’s teeth….

A. have long decayed
B. have long been decayed
C. have long being decayed
D. had long decayed
E. had been decayed

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;
The employer, not the salesman and his representative …. responsible for the loss

A. are
B. are being
C. are never
D. have been
E. is

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;
The boy was born before his parents actually got married and so the court has declared him ….

A. illegal
B. illegitimate
C. illicit
D. unlawful
E. untenable

As he was still owing me two naira, i was careful not to …. him any more money

A. lend
B. loan
C. borrow
D. extend
E. credit

Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space;
Last week the …. at the theater was the longest i had ever seen

A. assembly
B. congregation
C. convention
D. audience
E. crowd

Jamb 2024 Biology Questions

The hormone which regulates the amount of glucose in the blood is called?

A. Adrenalin
B. Auxin
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine

Deamination occurs in the?

A. Kidney
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Liver

In an agricultural ecosystem, the biotic component consist of

A. crops, pests and beneficial insects
B. crops, temperature and humidity
C. pests, beneficial insects and water
D. crops, water and soil

Epiphytes growing on the branches of trees provide an example of the relationship known as?

A. parasitism
B. commensalism
C. saprophytism
D. holophytism

The hypha of rhizopus is said to be non-septate because it

A. does not contain chloropyll
B. has no cross wall
C. is vacuoled
D. stores oil globus

The function of ribosome in cells is

A. protein synthesis
B. starch synthesis
C. transport of material
D. lipid storage

In which of the following does external fertilization take place?

A. toad
B. lizard
C. bird
D. cockroach

The villus in the small intestine is significant because

A. Increases the surface area for absorption
B. increases the surface area for digestion
C. assists in mixing digested food
D. assists in filtering undigested food

The butterfly is of great economic importance because

A. of it’s use in scientific studies
B. it sucks nectar from flowers
C. it adds to the beauty of the environment
D. it pollinates flowers of crops and other plants

The bright colours of the comb and feathers in the peacock are for?

A. sex differentiation
B. beauty
C. courtship
D. defence

What is the term used to describe biotic and abiotic factors in the environment of the organism?

A. habitat
B. biome
C. ecosystem
D. ecological niche

Which of the following instruments is NOT used in measuring abiotic factors in any habitat?

A. microscope
B. thermometer
C. hygrometer
D. windvane

The smallest living organism which share the characteristics of both living and non-living matter are

A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. viruses
D. protozoa

The process by which a red blood cell placed in distilled water absorbs water until it burst and realease it’s content into the surrounding is known as

A. osmosis
B. plasmolysis
C. turgidity
D. hemolysis

Which of the following waste products in plants is excreted through the stomata and lenticles?

A. carbon dioxide
B. alkaloids
C. tannins
D. anthoocyanins

The ability of the eyes to focus on both near and distance objects is termed

A. image formation
B. refraction
C. hypermetropia
D. accommodation

A group of organism of different species living in a particular area is described as a

A. colony
B. community
C. population
D. niche

The biological association that contributes directly to succession in a community is

A. competition
B. predation
C. parasitism
D. commensalism

Floating microscopic heterotrophs are mostly grouped as

A. phytoplankton
B. zooplankton
C. microbes
D. nekton

Vaccination is carried out in order to

A. check the production of poison
B. increase the activities of white blood cells
C. increase the number of red blood cells
D. stimulate the production of anti-bodies

Jamb 2022 Literature Questions

When a writer deviates from the chronological arrangement of events in a literary piece, he uses …

A. Anadiplosis
B. Anachrony
C. Chrestomathy
D. Anagnorisis

The literary term for conflict in literature is_________

A. Agon
B. Hubris
C. Hamartia
D. Anaphora

_______ is used to describe the situation where a character recognize his mistake

A. Tragic flaw
B. Hubris
C. Denouement
D. Anagnorisis

“Nightfall! Nightfall!! You are my mortal enemy”. The dominant figure of speech above is a/an________

A. Ode
B. Apostrophe
C. Allusion
D. Metaphor

________is used to describe the ‘god of inspiration’ in literature

A. Muse
B. Premiere
C. Mood
D. Deux Ex Machina

_____ is used to describe the predetermination of a future event in a literary piece

A. Analepsis
B. Prolepsis
C. Interlude
D. Fatalism

The theme that runs through Hallowell’s Dining Table is that of________

A. Conflict
B. Brutality
C. Poverty
D. Loneliness

Which one of the following does not relate to the tone in Diop’s Vanity?

A. Sarcasm
B. Condemnation
C. Rejuvenation
D. Concern

Use the extract below to answer questions

Line 1: My heart leaps up when I behold
Line 2: A rainbow in the sky
Line 3: so was it when my life began
Line 4: so is it now
Line 5: so is it when I have grown
Line 6: the child is the father of the man.

The mood of the writer is that of _____?

A. Elation
B. Sarcasm
C. Sorrow
D. Anxiety

Use the extract below to answer questions

The rhyme scheme of the poem is_________

A. acbcca
B. abccdc
C. abcdcc
D. abacbc

Use the extract below to answer questions

The object of the extract is____?

A. childishness
B. the unchanging cycle of nature
C. the adverse effect of old age
D. human being

Use the extract below to answer questions

The literary device used in line 1 is ________

A. Simile
B. Alliteration
C. Litotes
D. Personification

Use the extract below to answer questions

The literary device used in line 6 is an example of______

A. Synecdoche
B. Irony
C. Paradox
D. Hyperbole

The atmosphere of a poem has to do with_________

A. Time and Place
B. Rhythm and Rhyme
C. Tone and Mood
D. Versification and Lineation

An overused expression is a/an _________

A. Cliche
B. Cacophony
C. Epigram
D. Archetype

What basically distinguishes literature from other disciplines is its________

A. use of creative imagination
B. exposition of human experiences
C. communication of ideas
D. portrayal of places

In drama, comic reliefs often occur in_______

A. comedies
B. tragedies
C. historical plays
D. romantic plays

‘A trouble shared is a trouble halved’ illustrates the use of______

A. Paradox
B. Cliche
C. Pun
D. Metaphor

The art of using persuasive words in literary works is known as_______

A. Rhetoric
B. Dilemma
C. Parody
D. Paronomasia

A poem is said to be good if it________

A. has elevated style
B. has rhyme and reason
C. is difficult to understand
D. has a regular rhythm

Jamb 2024 Commerce

A partnership may be automatically dissolved due to the following factors except________

A. Court verdict
B. Joint decision
C. Admission of new partners
D. Bankruptcy of a partner

One of the disadvantages of Sole Proprietorship is__________

A. It requires small operations
B. It involves small capital
C. It lacks specialization
D. Grants from government

In the formation of a united liability company, the following documents are prepared except_______

A. Memorandum of Association
B. Article of Association
C. Statement of Nominal Capita
D. Prospectus

The process of winding up or bringing a company to an end is________

A. Dissolution
B. Liquidation
C. Integrating
D. Merger

Use the following information to answer this question.

The following is a summary of the asset and liabilities of Ojo trading company as at 31st December, 2018

Initial Capital	5000
Net Profit	1000
Furniture	2000
Equipment	2900
Debtors	100
Stock	1000
Bank	500

From the above, calculate Current assets

A. 1600
B. 1060
C. 1500
D. 600

The following is a summary of the asset and liabilities of Ojo trading company as at 31st December, 2018

Initial Capital	5000
Net Profit	1000
Furniture	2000
Equipment	2900
Debtors	100
Stock	1000
Bank	500

From the above, calculate Fixed assets

A. 6500
B. 2000
C. 4900
D. 600

The following is a summary of the asset and liabilities of Ojo trading company as at 31st December, 2018

Initial Capital	5000
Net Profit	1000
Furniture	2000
Equipment	2900
Debtors	100
Stock	1000
Bank	500

From the above, calculate Current liabilities

A. 100
B. 6000
C. 600
D. 3000

In a law of contract, what is given in exchange for a promise to perform is_____

A. offer
B. acceptance
C. warranty
D. consideration

In Nigeria, it is mandatory for all business enterprises to be registered with the________

A. Government
B. Corporate Affairs Commission
C. Agent
D. Enterprise

All but one does not provide an Indirect Service?

A. Custom Officers
B. Family Doctors
C. Civil Servants
D. Law Makers

Examples of Commercial occupation are all except___________

A. Bankers
B. Traders
C. Insurers
D. Goldsmith

All but one is not an output devices?

A. Joystick
B. Monitor
C. Plotter
D. Printer

A self-contained chunk of code with principal aim to replies preferably undetected and to copy itself into the computer’s memory and the computer’s hard-disk is_________

A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Computer remedies
D. Virus

The risks that can be forecast and measured is termed___________

A. Gambling
B. Insurable risks
C. Non-Insurable risks
D. Indenmity Insurance

The type of insurance policy that is compulsory in International trade so that all goods passing through the sea must be covered is considered to be________

A. The type of insurance policy that is compulsory in International trade so that all goods passing through the sea must be covered is considered to be
B. Aviation Insurance
C. Marine Insurance
D. Life Assurance

Thee major aim of consumer orientation is_________

A. consumer satisfaction
B. consumer sovereignty
C. what to produce
D. market research

The policy used when contracts are awarded as a result of tender is________

A. market penetration
B. market skimming
C. Bid Pricing
D. Product Line Pricing

One of these is not a major in the production process?

A. Producers
B. Distributors
C. Marketers
D. Consumers

Examples of consumer goods include all except________

A. Nurse
B. Cars
C. Spoon
D. Shoes

The most important resources of business is_______

A. Human resources
B. Money resources
C. Material resources
D. Opportunities

Jamb 2024 Mathematics

Evaluate (212) $_{3}$

– (121) $_{3}$ + (222) $_{3}$

A. (313) $_{3}$
B. (1000) $_{3}$
C. (1020) $_{3}$
D. (1222) $_{3}$

Factorise (4a + 3) $^{2}$

– (3a – 2) $^{2}$

A. (a + 1)(a + 5)
B. (a – 5)(7a – 1)
C. (a + 5)(7a + 1)
D. a(7a + 1)

Find all median of the numbers 89, 141, 130, 161, 120, 131, 131, 100, 108 and 119

A. 131
B. 125
C. 123
D. 120

Find all real number x which satisfy the inequality $\frac{1}{3}$

(x + 1) – 1 > $\frac{1}{5}$

(x + 4)

A. x < 11
B. x < -1
C. x > 6
D. x > 11

Reach each number to two significant figures and then evaluate $\frac{0.02174 \times 1.2047}{0.023789}$

A. 0
B. 0.9
C. 1.1
D. 1.2

Four boys and ten girls can cut a field first in 5 hours. If the boys work at $\frac{5}{4}$

the rate at which the girls work, how many boys will be needed to cut the field in 3 hours?

A. 180
B. 60
C. 25
D. 20

What is the circumference of latitude 0 $^{o}$

S if R is the radius of the earth?

A. cos $θ$
B. 2 $π$

R cos $θ$

C. R sin $θ$
D. 2 $π$

r sin $θ$

A room is 12m long, 9m wide and 8m high. Find the cosine of the angle which a diagonal of the room makes with the floor of the room

A. $\frac{15}{17}$

B. $\frac{8}{17}$
C. $\frac{8}{15}$
D. $\frac{12}{17}$

The goals scored by 40 football teams from three league divisions are recorded below

No of goals	0	1	2	3	4	5	6
Frequency	4	3	15	16	1	0	1

What is the total number of goals scored by all the teams?

A. 21
B. 40
C. 91
D. 96

In a class of 150 students, the sector in a pie chart representing the students offering physics has angle 12 $^{o}$

. How many students are offering physics?

A. 18
B. 15
C. 10
D. 5

If log $_{10}$

2 = 0.3010 and log $_{10}$ 3 = 0.4771, eventually without using the logarithm tables, log $_{10}$

4.5

A. 0.3010
B. 0.4771
C. 0.6532
D. 0.9542

Simplify $\frac{324 - 4 x^{2}}{2 x + 18}$

A. 2(x – 9)
B. 2(9 + x)
C. 81 – x $^{2}$

D. -2(x – 9)

In preparing rice cutlets, a cook used 75g of rice, 40g of margarine, 105g of meat and 20g of bread crumbs. Find the angle of the sector which represent meat in a pie chart?

A. 30 $^{o}$

B. 60 $^{o}$
C. 112.5 $^{o}$
D. 157.5 $^{o}$

The angle of a sector of a circle radius 10.5 cm is 48 $^{o}$

. Calculate the perimeter of the sector.

A. 25.4cm
B. 25.4cm
C. 25.6cm
D. 29.8cm

What is the product of $\frac{27}{5}$

, $(3)^{- 3}$ and ( $\frac{1}{5})^{- 1}$

A. 5
B. 3
C. 1
D. $\frac{1}{25}$

A crate of soft drinks contains 10 bottle of Coca-Cola 8 of Fanta and 6 of Sprite. If one bottle is selected at random, what is the probability that it is Not a Coca-Cola bottle?

A. $\frac{5}{12}$

B. $\frac{1}{3}$
C. $\frac{3}{4}$
D. $\frac{7}{12}$

In this fiqure, PQ = PR = PS and SRT = 68 $^{o}$

. Find QPS

A. 136 $^{o}$
B. 124 $^{o}$
C. 112 $^{o}$
D. 68 $^{o}$

Find the gradient of the line passing through the points (-2, 0) and (0, 4)

A. 2
B. -4
C. -2
D. 4

Find the equation of the line through the points (5, 7) parallel to the line 7x + 5y = 12.

A. 5x + 7y = 120
B. 7x + 5y = 70
C. x + y = 7
D. 15x + 17y = 90

If N225.00 yields N27.00 in x years simple interest at the rate of 4% per annum, find x.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 12
D. 17

Jamb 2024 Chemistry Questions

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. The average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature
B. At constant tempearture, the volume of a gas increases as the pressure increases
C. The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume
D. The temperature of a gas is directly proportional to its volume
E. The collisions of molecules with each other are elastic

Zinc Oxide is a

A. Basic Oxide
B. Acidic Oxide
C. Amphoteric Oxide
D. Neutral Oxide
E. Reactive Oxide

When sodium chloride and metallic sodium are each dissolved in water

A. both processes are exothermic
B. both processes are endothermic
C. the dissolution of metallic sodium is endothermic
D. the dissolution of metallic sodium is exothermic
E. the dissolution of sodium chloride is explosive

The periodic classification of elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their

A. Atomic Weights
B. Isotopic Weights
C. Molecular Weights
D. Atomic Numbers
E. Atomic Masses

In the reaction between sodium hydroxide and sulphuric acid solutions, what volume of 0.5 molar sodium hydroxide would exactly neutralise 10cm3 of 1.25 molar sulphuric acid?

A. 5cm³
B. 10cm³
C. 20cm³
D. 25cm³
E. 50cm³

A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) was heated gently in a test tube, the solid gradually disappears to produce two gases. Later, a white cloudy deposit was observed on the cooler part of the test tube. The ammonium chloride is said to have undergone

A. distillation
B. sublimation
C. precipitation
D. evaporation
E. decomposition

Elements P, Q, R, S have 6, 11, 15, 17 electrons respectively, therefore,

A. P will form an electrovalent bond with R
B. Q will form a covalent bond with S
C. R will form an electrovalent bond with S
D. Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
E. Q will form a covalent bond with R

An element X forms the following compounds with chlorine; XCl₄, XCl₃, XCl₂. This illustrates the

A. law of multiple proportions
B. law of chemical proportions
C. law of simple proportions
D. law of conservation of mass
E. law of definite proportions

The oxidation state of chlorine in potassium chlorate is

A. +1
B. +2
C. +3
D. +5
E. +7

When air which contains the gases Oxygen, nitrogen, carbondioxide, water vapour and the rare gases, is passed through alkaline pyrogallol and then over quicklime, the only gases left are;

A. nitrogen and carbondioxide
B. the rare gases
C. nitrogen and oxygen
D. nitrogen and the rare gases
E. nitrogen, carbondioxide and the rare gases

When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be

A. thermodynamic
B. exothermic
C. isothermal
D. endothermic
E. thermostatic

When large hydrocarbon molecules are heated at high temperature in the presence of a catalyst to give smaller molecules, the process is known as

A. disintegration
B. polymerization
C. cracking
D. degradation
E. distillation

The pH of four solutions W, X, Y, Z are 4, 6, 8, 10 respectively, therefore

A. none of these solutions is acidic
B. the pH of Y is made more acidic by addition of distilled water
C. Z is the most acidic solution
D. W is the most acidic solution
E. X is neutral

When each of the nitrates of Potassium, Magnesium and iron is heated,

A. all the nitrates decompose to their oxides
B. the nitrate of magnesium gives the nitrite and oxygen
C. the nitrates of iron magnesium and iron give the oxides
D. the nitrate of iron gives the nitrite and oxygen
E. the nitrate of the magnesium is not decomposed

Which of the following metals cannot replace hydrogen from water or steam?

A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Iron
D. Calcium
E. Copper

A sample of hard water contains some calcium sulphate and calcium hydrogen carbonate. The total hardness may therefore be removed by

A. boiling the water
B. adding excess calcium hydroxide
C. adding a calculated amount of calcium hydroxide
D. adding sodium carbonate
E. adding magnesium hydroxide

During the electrolysis of copper II sulphate between platinum electrodes, if litmus solution is added to the anode compartment,

A. the litmus turns blue but no gas is evolved
B. the litmus turns blue and oxygen is evolved
C. the litmus turns blue and hydrogen is evolved
D. the litmus turns red and oxygen is evolved
E. the litmus turns red and then becomes colourless

The reaction between an organic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst is known as;

A. saponification
B. dehydration
C. esterification
D. hydrolysis
E. hydration

The IUPAC names of the compounds CH3COOH and CH2=CH2 are respectively;

A. acetic acid and ethene
B. methanoic acid and ethene
C. methanoic acid and ethylene
D. ethanol and ethene
E. acetic acid and ethylene

If 30cm³ of oxygen diffuses through a porous pot in 7 seconds, how long will it take 60cm³ of chlorine to diffuse through the same pot, if the vapour densities of oxygen and chlorine are 16 and 36 respectively?

A. 9.3 sec
B. 14 sec
C. 21 sec
D. 28 sec
E. 30.3 sec

Jamb 2024 Physics Questions

The inner diameter of a test tube can be measured accurately using a

A. micrometer screw guage
B. pair of dividers
C. metre rule
D. pair of vernier calipers

Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1. They experience forces which impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of forces the masses experienced.

A. 1 : 4
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 5

Particles of mass 10^-2kg is fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100rad-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the centripetal force is

A. 2 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 400 N

A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms $^{- 1}$

into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is

A. 50 J
B. 100 J
C. 150 J
D. 200 J

A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is

(take g = 10ms-2)

A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 15 J
D. 20 J

A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25m/s in 20 secs. The power developed in the engine is

A. 1 . 25 x 10⁴ W
B. 2 . 50 x 10⁴ W
C. 1 . 25 x 10⁶W
D. 2 . 50 x 10⁶ W

When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force force on the tyres is

A. is a disadvantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
B. is a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
C. is an advantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
D. is an advantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car

If the stress on a wire is 10⁷NM^-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. The young’s modulus of the wire is

A. 5 . 0 x 10⁴ Nm^-2
B. 5 . 0 x 10⁵ Nm^-2
C. 2 . 0 x 10⁸ Nm^-2
D. 2 . 0 x 10⁹ Nm^-2

A solid weigh 10 .00 N in air, 6 N when fully immersed in water and 7 . 0 N when fully immersed in a liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid, X.

A. 5/3
B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 7/10

When temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain Constant
D. Increases then decreases

A gas at a volume of V₀ in a container at pressure P₀ is compressed to one-fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if the magnitude of its original temperature T is constant?

A. P₀/5
B. 4P₀/5
C. P₀
D. 5P₀

A piece of substance of specific head capacity 450JKg^-1K^-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10ms^-2]

A. 2/9°C
B. 4/9°C
C. 9/4°C
D. 9/2°C

I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure
II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to increase in the boiling point.
III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases.
IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decrease the boiling point.Which combination of the above are peculiarities of the boiling point of a liquid?

A. I, II and III
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV

The temperature gradient across a copper rod of thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature junctions of 20°C and 80°C respectively is

A. 3.0 x 10²Km^-1
B. 3.0 x 10³Km^-1
C. 5.0 x 10³Km^-1
D. 3.0 x 10⁴Km^-1

Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss;
Specific heat capacity of copper = 400JKg^-1K^-1
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 10⁵JKg^-1

A. 8/33kg
B. 33/80kg
C. 80/33kg
D. 33/8kg

The equation of a wave travelling along the positive x-direction is given by;
y = 0.25 x 10^-3 sin (500t – 0.025x).
Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion.

A. 0.25 x 10^-3rad s^-1
B. 0.25 x 10^-1rad s^-1
C. 5.00 x 10²rad s^-1
D. 2.50 x 10³rad s^-1

If a sound wave goes from a cold air region to a hot air region, its wavelength will

A. increase
B. decrease
C. decrease then increase
D. remain constant

The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40Hz. How many overtones are there between 40hz and 180Hz?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is

A. 3m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 10m

The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will therefore form a

A. concave mirror of focal length 5cm
B. concave mirror of focal length 10cm
C. convex mirror of focal length 5cm
D. convex mirror of focal length 20cm

Jamb 2024 Government

The judicial order requiring a detained person to be brought before a judge is the writ of

Options

A) Habeas corpus

B) Mandamus

C) Prohibition

D) Certiorari

Question 2

A political party can contest and win a widely accepted election if it has

Options

A) the ability to rig election

B) intolerant attitude to oppositions

C) a broad-based membership

D) the support of very wealthy politicians

Question 3

Political parties aim at all the following except

Options

A) contesting elections

B) forming a government

C) organizing general elections

D) educating the electorate politically

Question 4

Which of the following is not a means through which political parties reach the populace?

Options

A) Posters

B) newspapers

C) schools

D) the internet

Question 5

An association whose ultimate aim is to influence government policies is known as

Options

A) civil service

B) pressure group

C) political party

D) public corporation

Question 6

Membership of pressure groups is usually limited because they

Options

A) pursue specific and narrow objectives

B) promote other people’s interests

C) do not have dynamic leadership

D) promote the interest of the government

Question 7

Elections are conducted to

Options

A) provide permanent employment for the people

B) make the people choose their leaders

C) known the number of people in a country

D) know the social amenities in the community

Question 8

Power is transformed into legal authority through

Options

A) force

B) prayers

C) influence

D) legitimacy

Question 9

Conventions are mostly used by states that have

Options

A) a large number of illiterates

B) a lot of people not interested in political activities

C) unwritten constitution

D) rigid constitution

Question 10

One advantage of a flexible constitution is that it

Options

A) can lead to dictatorship

B) can easily be manipulated

C) is best suited for a federation

D) can be amended by a simple majority

Question 11

A constitution that requires complicated procedure for its amendment is

Options

A) rigid

B) flexible

C) written

D) unwritten

Question 12

The official who enforces discipline among members of his party in parliament is the

Options

A) majority leader

B) minority leader

C) clerk of the House

D) chief whip

Question 13

When an action of the executive is declared ultra vires, it is a control exercised by the

Options

A) public

B) minister

C) judiciary

D) parliament

Question 14

One of the features of an absolute monarch is that the ruler

Options

A) is elected by the electorate

B) has a definite tenure of office

C) is elected by the representatives of the people

D) wields the supreme power in a state

Question 15

A notable feature of cabinet system of government is

Options

A) collective responsibility

B) the separation of powers

C) violation of human rights

D) impeachment of the executive

Question 16

The privilege citizens enjoyed in a country irrespective of sex, tribe or creed is

Options

A) right

B) constitution

C) manifesto

D) franchise

Question 17

The judicial order requiring a detained person to be brought before a judge is the writ of

Options

A) Habeas corpus

B) Mandamus

C) Prohibition

D) Certiorari

Question 18

A political party can contest and win a widely accepted election if it has

Options

A) the ability to rig election

B) intolerant attitude to oppositions

C) a broad-based membership

D) the support of very wealthy politicians

Question 19

Political parties aim at all the following except

Options

A) contesting elections

B) forming a government

C) organizing general elections

D) educating the electorate politically

Question 20

Which of the following is not a means through which political parties reach the populace?

Options

A) Posters

B) newspapers

C) schools

D) the internet

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About Jamb CBT Exams

Before the Advent Of CBT

Pencil and Paper Malpractice History

Current Challenges with JAMB CBT Exams

Tips to Passing JAMB CBT Exam 2024

1. Pay Attention to Your Application Process

2. Get Acquainted with a Computer

3. Practice at CBT Interface with Your Computer

4. Time Yourself while You Practice

5. Always Take Notes

6. Attend Intensive JAMB Tutorials

7. Always Keep Past Questions Close

Number Of Questions To Be Set In Jamb 2024 For All Subjects

How will Jamb 2024 questions be set then?

How Would JAMB 2024 Be Marked And Graded? JAMB new grading system/ marking scheme 2024

How Does Jamb Calculate Their Marks

Jamb new grading system 2022

JAMB SCORE GRADE POINTS

Jamb Negative Marking (Do Jamb participates in Negative Marking)

JAMB UTME Subjects Combination

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